The majority of italian immigrants in USA and the rest of Europe are from south Italy because the poorest conditions. You know only that appearance. Italy is very differentiated. And not only from north to south. I know blonde and light skinned men from Sicily. Alexander the Great (the great Macedonian king, a greek) was blonde. Well before germanic and slavic invasions.
Excuse me for my animosity. I think the reality is more complicated than often assumed. I love athletics. And I love the story. I would like to see athletes from all over the world compete in the same conditions. But this is not really possible. For economic, social and cultural factors. And it is easier to explain everything in a simplistic way. I'm sorry. I do not want to offend anyone. Sorry. I like to debate wiyh you.
Love that picture. Can any of you track buffs do a short write-up on the Arkansas team, and any others with White sprinters that are doing well? I know Penn State was also mentioned in this thread. If someone can put together a short summary I'll post it on the homepage and a lot more people will become aware of this.
thanks, i had no idea because they decided to speak the local language, otherwise we would speak a germanic language it is said to be related to their conversion to catholicism it was important enough to have laws to avoid problems between the invaders and the inhabitants http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lex_Burgundionum i think that they owned 2/3 of the land
Like this: http://www.eupedia.com/europe/european_y-dna_haplogroups.shtml and i forgot these links: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Genetic_history_of_Europe http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Y-chromosome_haplogroups_by_populations http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Haplogroup_R_(Y-DNA) http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Haplogroup_R1b_(Y-DNA)
because they decided to speak the local language, otherwise we would speak a germanic language it is said to be related to their conversion to catholicism it was important enough to have laws to avoid problems between the invaders and the inhabitants http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lex_Burgundionum i think that they owned 2/3 of the land[/QUOTE] Normally is the elite to decide the language. And the majority (peasants and workers) only could accept this situation. The conqueror elites are mainly the minority. And they took the power (before romans, after some german tribes-confederacy etc...). The only different examples are USA and Australia, where the original populations (smaller in number) were largely eliminated. Also in north Italy Longobards imposed their laws, like in Burgundy. In reality the situation was more complicated. They applied, in some situations, different laws for different peoples (Latins and Germans). History tells about the winners, the elites. But it's to difficult to understand the history of most of the conquered peoples. In fact, elites claimed to have control of most of the earth. History is plenty of these examples. As each power has always done. I don't find it strange.
And the only interest for christian church were to christianize. Not latinisize. See to Irland. Or other populotions (different german populations). Christianization was very important because involved the elites. In Italy, during V century AD, Goths (the elite) were Arians and not Catholics. After this the Church began to Christianize all the new elites. But not to change languages.
we're going WAY off topic :grin: but i did not say that the church forced the germanic invaders to adopt the language, they spoke germanic language for a very long time, and then they wanted to speak a latin language because latin is the official language of catholicism, and since they converted to catholicism.... anyway, i really enjoy discussing this topic, but we must go back to the topic i think the point is that france had a big germanic influence in the north and the east, both historically and racially we are not named the country of the franks for no reason :grin: let's go back to what don wassall asked for before the off topic: